A 68-year-old retired banker comes to your clinic for evaluation of left shoulder pain. He swims for 30 minutes daily each morning. He notes a sharp, catching pain and a sensation of something grating when he tries overhead movements of his arm. On physical examination, you note tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of the tendon insertions. The drop arm test is negative, and there is no limitation with shoulder shrug. The client is not holding his arm close to his side, and there is no tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove when the arm is at the client's side, flexed to 90 degrees, and then supinated against resistance. Based on this description, what is the most likely cause of his shoulder pain?

Mr. will, a 67-year-old patient, is postoperative day 2 after a coronary artery bypass graft operation to revascularize his coronary arteries that were significantly blocked. he has a midline incision of his chest and a 7-inch incision on the inner aspect of his right thigh where a saphenous vein graft was harvested and used to vascularize the blocked coronary artery. the surgeon ordered oxycodone 5 mg every 4 hours prn for moderate pain and oxycodone 10 mg every 4 hours prn for severe pain. a. considering the patient's age, what medication administration considerations should the nurse incorporate into the pain management plan and why? b. what measures should the nurse provide the patient to prevent adverse effects of analgesic agents from occurring? c. what nonpharmacologic pain management methods should the nurse teach to mr. will to assist with pain management?