The centers for disease control and prevention reports that the rate of chlamydia infections among american women ages 20 to 24 is 2791.5 per 100,000. take a random sample of three american women in this age group. the probability that at least one of them has a chlamydia infection is

The probability that a randomly selected woman in the age group has the infection is:

The probability that none of the women in the sample has the infection is:

Therefore the probability that one or more of the women in the sample has the infection is: 1 - 0.919 = 0.081.
The answer is 0.081.

False because how does that work?