Mathematics, 06.12.2021 23:50, tay9625
Can somebody please explain why y = -x is equivalent to r sin(θ) = r cos(θ) instead of r sin(θ) = - r cos(θ) ? Thank you.
Answers: 1
Mathematics, 21.06.2019 16:00, blackbetty79
Ernest is purchasing a $175,000 home with a 30-year mortgage. he will make a $15,000 down payment. use the table below to find his monthly pmi payment.
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Mathematics, 21.06.2019 19:00, crazylife77
Acomputer store bought a program at a cost of $10 and sold it for $13. find the percent markup
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Mathematics, 22.06.2019 01:30, penacesar18p9jrdh
Triangle abc was translated 2 untits to the right and 3 units down. write the algebraic rule that describes the translation that was applied to triangle abc to create triangle a'b'c'.
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Can somebody please explain why y = -x is equivalent to r sin(θ) = r cos(θ) instead of r sin(θ) = -...
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