Every Thursday, Matt and Dave's Video Venture has “roll-the-dice" day. A customer may choose to roll two fair dice and rent a second movie for an amount (in cents) equal to the numbers uppermost on the dice, with the larger number first. For example, if the customer rolls a two and a four, a
second movie may be rented for $0.42. If a two and two are rolled, a second movie may be rented for $0.22. Let X represent the amount paid for a
second movie on roll-the-dice day. The expected value of X is $0.47 and the standard deviation of X is $0.15.
If a customer rolls the dice and rents a second movie every Thursday for 30 consecutive weeks, what is the approximate probability that the total
amount paid for these second movies will exceed $15.00?

I saw other questions for this but why is the standard deviation 0.15*sqrt of 30 and not 0.15*30 because I thought this is a linear transformation

step-by-step explanation:

we are given a graph for system of inequalities.

in order to write the system of inequalities for the given graph, we need to find the inequality for each of the line separately.

let us find the slope of dotted line first.

taking two coordinates on the graph.

let us say (0,0) and (3,1).

let us find the slope of the line now.

slope of the dotted line would be =.

y-intercept of dotted line is y=0 only.

plugging slope m= and b=0 in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, we get

.

the line is shaded up of that dotted line.

therefore, for shading up we would take greater than inequality symbol > .

and because it's a dotted line we would take only > symbol in place of = sign in above equation of line.

therefore, inequality for dotted line would be

let us take two points (3,1) and (0,4) on the solid line.

slope of the solid line would be =.

for the solid line we have y-intercept b= 4.

plugging slope m= -1 and b=4 in slope-intercept form y=mx+b, we get

y = -1x + 4.

the line is shaded down of that solid line.

therefore, for shading down we would take less than inequality symbol < .

and because it's a solid line we would take ≤ symbol in place of = sign in above equation of line.

therefore, inequality for solid line would be

answer: ratio of volume of cone (with 3 times the height and equal diameter) to volume of cylinder is 2 to 1. the value of π is not used.

step-by-step explanation:

radius is diameter/2 = 4.

area of circle is π r^2.

volume of cylinder is height × area of base = hπr^2 = 3(4^2) π = 48π cubic inches.

not knowing the formula for volume of cone, i calculate it using calculus (which is for calculating things).

volume of cone is integral 0 to h area(y) dy. area(y) is π r(y)^2. r(y) runs r to zero as y runs zero to h, r(0) = r, r(h) = 0.

r(y) = r - r/h y

area(y) = π (r - r/h y)^2 = π (r^2 - 2r^2y/h + r^2y^2/h^2) = π r^2(1-2y/h+y^2/h^2)

antiderivative area(y) = π r^2 (y-y^2/h+y^3/(3h^2))

integral 0 to h = π r^2(h-h^2/h+h^3/(3h^2) - (0)) = π r^2(h - h + h/3) = π r^2(h/3) = π/3 r^2 h

volume of this cone is π/3(4^2)18 cubic inches.

= 6 16 π = 96π cubic inches.

cone has twice the volume, 96/48.

cone height is 6 times the cylinder.

ratio of volume formula: π r^2 cancels.

cone over cylinder ratio is 6h/3 to h, 2 to 1.

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