Mathematics, 29.07.2021 18:50, ozheng24112

Let f(x) = $\frac{1}{x}$ and g(x)= $\left \{ {{\frac{1}{x}} if x\ \textgreater \ 0 \atop {2+\frac{1}{x} }} if x\ \textless \ 0 \right.$

Show that f'(x) = g'(x) for all x domains. Can we conclude from the corollary below that f-g is constant?

[If f'(x) = g'(x) for all x in an interval (a, b) then f - g is constant on (a, b); that is, f(x) = g(x) + c where c is a constant.

fins f'(x) and g'(x)

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Let f(x) = and g(x)=

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Let f(x) = and g(x)= Show that f'(x) = g'(x) for all x domains. Can we conclude from the corollary below that f-g is constant? [If f'(x) = g'(x) for all x in an interval (a, b) then f - g is constant on (a, b); that is, f(x) = g(x) + c where c is a constant. fins f'(x) and g'(x)