Mathematics, 30.05.2021 20:40, granthazenp5e9mj

If the constant of proportionality of "y = x" is 1, meaning the ratio between x and y (and vice-versa) is always equivalent to 1, does that mean that for x equal to zero and y equal to zero, the ratio will still be 1?

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If the constant of proportionality of "y = x" is 1, meaning the ratio between x and y (and vice-vers...