Given that f ′′ ( x ) = cos ( x ) f ″ ( x ) = cos ⁡ ( x ) , f ′ ( π / 2 ) = 7 f ′ ( π / 2 ) = 7 and f ( π / 2 ) = 5 f ( π / 2 ) = 5 find: f ′ ( x ) = f ′ ( x ) = f ( x ) = f ( x ) =

40 is the final : )

80π/3 or about 83.775

step-by-step explanation:

since a cone is 1/3 of a cylinder, we need to find the base's area. since area = πr^2, we get 16π. then, multiplying this by 5, we get 80π. dividing by 3, since the cone's volume is 1/3 of that of a cylinder's, we get 80π/3.

hope this !