Me out with this question. you! : -)

the answer   is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities.   i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.  

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming.   when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution.   this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot.   there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything.   the form of the distribution is

  probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

the answer is:

the answer is:

to solve the problem, we need to remember the quotient of power property, it's defined by the following relation:

if we have a quotienf of powers that have the same base, we need to keep the same base and subtract the exponent of the denominator power to the exponent of the numerator power.

so, we are given the expression:

then, calculating we have:

hence, the answer is:

have a nice day!