Mathematics
Mathematics, 29.03.2021 20:40, meme6229

Define F: β„€ β†’ β„€ by the rule F(n) = 2 βˆ’ 3n, for each integer n. (i) Prove that F is one-to-one. Proof: Suppose n1 and n2 are any integers, such that F(n1) = F(n2). Substituting from the definition of F gives that 2 βˆ’ 3n1 =

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Define F: β„€ β†’ β„€ by the rule F(n) = 2 βˆ’ 3n, for each integer n. (i) Prove that F is one-to-one. Proof...

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