PLEASE HELP 55 POINTS + BRAINLIEST Explain how you could use the information that all circles are similar to show that the value of pi is a constant.

defined as the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter, is constant. That is, it does not vary given circles of differing size. This claim is equivalent to saying "all circles are proportional" or "all circles are similar."

The proof that πk(C1)=πk(C2) of course would just apply the similarity of polygons and the behavior of length and area for changes of scale. This argument does not assume a limit-based theory of length and area, because the theory of length and area for polygons in Euclidean geometry only requires dissections and rigid motions. Any polygonal arc or region can be standardized to an interval or square by a finite number of (area and length preserving). Numerical calculations involving the πk, such as ratios of particular lengths or areas, can be understood either as applying to equidecomposability classes of polygons, or the standardizations. In both interpretations, due to the similitude, the results will be the same for C1 and C2.

table 3 represents a direct variation function. : )

your question is incomplete, write all the numbers in the sequence that it tells you.  

step-by-step explanation: