Hector says that the expression will always have the opposite sign as p for all values of p (positive, negative, and 0). Is he correct? Why or why not?
1.No, will always have the opposite sign as p except when p = 0.

2. Yes, ” will always have the opposite sign as p because if p is positive is negative, and if p is negative. ” is positive.

3.No, will always have the same sign as p.

4.Yes, will always have the opposite sign as p because p is positive and when divided by a negative number, the result is negative.