Let A, B, and C be nonempty sets and let f: A to B and g: B to C. If g \circ f: A to C is a subjection, then g: B to C is a subjection. Prove this statement.

where are the choices?

step-by-step explanation:

we can use this expression to calculate the energy gain as a particle moves with a field or the energy loss as it moves against it. (note that it is also used to define the electron-volt, a unit of energy equal to that gained by an electron as it falls through a pd of 1 v, i.e. w = 1 ev = 1.6 10-19 c 1 v = 1.6 10-19j).in fact this expression is really nothing more than the statement that potential is the potential energy per unit charge. in this case, v= w/qis simply stating that the change in potential energy(or work done) per unit charge is equal to the change in potential (or potential difference), v.student questions: uniform electric fields2electron beamcathode+5 kvanode0 v

the answer is 2/54

step-by-step explanation: