1-cos2a/1+cosa if 1/3 how much sin²a

(1-cos2A) /(1+cos2A) =tan²A

Proof:

We know that,

cos(A+B) =cosA.cosB-sinA.sinB

=>cos2A=cos(A+A)

=>cos2A=cosA.cosA - sinA.sinA

=>cos2A=cos²A-sin²A

=>cos2A=(cos²A-sin²A)/(cos²A+sin²A

Since {cos²A+sin²A=1}

Divide the numerator & the denominator by (cos²A) to get,

cos2A = {(cos²A-sin²A) ÷cos²A} / {(cos²A+sin²A) ÷cos²A}

cos2A ={(1-tan²A)/(1+tan²A)}

Then,

1-cos2A = 1-[{(1–tan²A)/(1+tan²A)}]

1-cos2A =(1+tan²A-1+tan²A)/(1+tan²A)

1-cos2A=(2tan²A)/(1+tan²A)

And now

1+cos2A=1+[{(1-tan²A)/(1+tan²A)}]

1+cos2A={1+tan²A+1-tan²A}/{1+tan²A}

1+cos2A=2/(1+tan²A)

So now,

(1-cos2A)/(1+cos2A)= {2tan²A/(1+tan²A)}÷{2/(1+tan²A)}

={(2tan²A)(1+tan²A)}÷{2(1+tan²A)}

=tan²A

Step-by-step explanation:

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80π/3 or about 83.775

step-by-step explanation:

since a cone is 1/3 of a cylinder, we need to find the base's area. since area = πr^2, we get 16π. then, multiplying this by 5, we get 80π. dividing by 3, since the cone's volume is 1/3 of that of a cylinder's, we get 80π/3.

hope this !

d is the correct answer

step-by-step explanation:

x= 8 because 3x = 3 * 8, and 3*8 = 24