Discuss the validity of the following statement. If the statement is always true, explain why. If not, give a counterexample. If the odds for E equal the odds against E', then P(E)P(F)=P(E∩F)

Correction:

Because F is not present in the statement, instead of working onP(E)P(F) = P(E∩F), I worked on

P(E∩E') = P(E)P(E').

The case is not always true.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the odds for E equals the odds against E', then it is correct to say that the E and E' do not intersect.

And for any two mutually exclusive events, E and E',

P(E∩E') = 0

Suppose P(E) is not equal to zero, and P(E') is not equal to zero, then

P(E)P(E') cannot be equal to zero.

So

P(E)P(E') ≠ 0

This makes P(E∩E') different from P(E)P(E')

Therefore,

P(E∩E') ≠ P(E)P(E') in this case.

i do not know the answer i am sorry

it is not that hard all u have to do is plot the graph

step-by-step explanation: