HELP 25 PTS ASAP BRAINLIEST

We can solve for the y-intercepts of both f(x) and h(x) by plugging in 0 as x. f(0) = -6(0)-3 = -3

h(0) = -2cos(pi)-1 = -2(-1)-1  = 1

So the y-intercept of f(x) is -3 and of h(x) is 1. We can then conclude that h(x) has a greater y-intercept than f(x) because 1>-3.

step-by-step explanation:

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