PLEASE HELP A bag contains red and blue marbles, such that the probability of drawing a blue marble is 3/8 An experiment consists of drawing a marble, replacing it, and drawing another marble. The two draws are independent. A random variable assigns the number of blue marbles to each outcome. What is the probability of drawing one blue marble?

15/64

Step-by-step explanation:

3 blue

5 red marbles.

since the marble is put back in, the denominator will not change,

so to draw ONE marble, the chances would be

chances of picking a blue marble 3/8

chances of picking a red marble 5/8

3/8 * 5/8 - 15/64

please mark me .

The probability of drawing one blue marble is 3/8 because you have three blue marbles out of a total of eight marbles. The probability of drawing a second blue marble is also 3/8 but since you have to draw both marbles consecutively you have to multiply the probabilities of drawing each marble. So,

3/8•3/8 = 9/64.

Now you need to change it to a percent.

We do this by

9/64 x 100 = 14% approx

x is variable or an unknown value to find

example:

2x = 5 which means x = 3

tip $2.90

total $17.40