PLEASE HELP i will give brainliest

Yes they are independent because P(California) = 0.55 approximately and P(California | Brand B) = 0.55 approximately as well

Explanation:

P(California) is notation that means "probability the person is from California". There are 150 people from California out of 275 total. Therefore, the probability is 150/275 = 0.5454 approximately which rounds to 0.55

Now if I told you "this person prefers brand B", then you would focus your attention solely on the brand B column. The other columns are ignored because you know they don't prefer anything else. With this narrower view, we see that 54 Californians prefer this brand out of 99 total. The probability becomes 54/99 = 0.5454 which rounds to 0.55. We get the same as before.

The notation P(California | Brand B) means "the probability they are from California given they prefer brand B". The vertical line is not the uppercase letter i or lowercase letter L. It is simply a vertical line. In probability notation that vertical line means "given".

We've shown that P(California | Brand B) = 0.55 approximately. The fact that they prefer brand B does not change the original probability. So the two events are independent. If liking brand B did change the probability, then the events would be dependent.

took the test it's 94

part a

x     y

0     8

1     7.5

2     7

3     6.5

4     6

5     5.5  

for every hour i deducted .5 inches from the length of the candle

part b

it is a function because for every x value there is only one y value

part   c

for every x value there is only one y value

x       y

0       8

1       7.6

2       7.2

3       6.8

step-by-step explanation: