What is the value of x in the equation ln (x + 6) – ln (2x – 1) = 1?

answer:

1. 0.04

2. 0.15

step-by-step explanation:

i just finished that assignment for properties of probability distributions.

x=-2

infinite number of lines, so there is an infinite number of equations.

step-by-step explanation:

there are an infinite number of line that passes through the point (-2,5)

x=-2   is one line that passes through the point

y = 5 is another line that passes through the point

(these two lines are perpendicular to each other).

since the number of   numbers are infinite and the slope is the ratio of two numbers,(change in y over change in x) we can have an infinite number of slopes.     our only condition is that it passes through the point (-2,5)

1. sometimes

2.   never

3   .08c = 7.50+.05c   250 pages

step-by-step explanation:

1.   sometimes

the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6.   perhaps you got really lucky and never rolled a 1   in those 60 times.   your experimental probability is 0.   or perhaps you rolled a 1   20 times.   your experimental probability is 20/60 is 1/3.     it really just depends on how you rolled in that experiment.

2.   never

the probability of the event occurring is 1.   that is being 100 % sure it will happen.   that is the maximum amount of confidence we have.

3.   no customer card cost:   .08 times number of pages

customer card cost:   7.50 + .05 times number of pages

we want to find when it costs the same amount, so we will set these equal

let c = number of pages

.08c = 7.50+.05c

subtract .05c from each side

.08c-.05c = 7.5+.05c-.05c

.03c=7.5

divide each side by .03

.03c/.03 = 7.5/03

c =250  

the cost is the same at 250 pages