Mathematics, 26.03.2020 17:49, manuellopez1981

Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?

A) Multiplicative inverses do not have the same sign.

B) Multiplicative inverses must multiply to equal 0, so they need the same sign.

C) Multiplicative inverses must multiply to equal 1, so they need the same sign.

D) Multiplicative inverses must multiply to equal -1, so they need the same sign.

Answers: 3

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Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?

A) Mu...