Which of the following explains why f(x) = log2x
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the function

This function can be written as:

As the rule tells s that

so

As we know that the value of x=0 at y-intercept.

For any value of , this statement is false as there is no power of 2 that is equal to 0.

Also

Lets interchange x and y in the equation  to find the inverse of the function.

So, it doesn't have any x-intercepts as for any value of x, the value of can not be zero for this function.

Therefore, Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

sup

step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 21%.