Given:
p: two linear functions have different coefficients of x.
q: the graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point.
which statement is logically equivalent to q - p?
if two linear functions have different coefficients of x, then the graphs of the two functions intersect at exactly one point.
if two linear functions have the same coefficients of x, then the graphs of the two linear functions do not intersect at exactly
one point
if the graphs of two functions do not intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of
if the graphs of two functions intersect at exactly one point, then the two linear functions have the same coefficients of x.

hi

step-by-step explanation:

the answer   is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities.   i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.  

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming.   when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution.   this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot.   there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything.   the form of the distribution is

  probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

12

step-by-step explanation:

a triangle's   full angle is 180 degrees so 180 - 156 = 24. 24/2=12

dalila is incorrect. the whisker on the left is very long, going all the way out to 5. the whisker goes from 5 to 30, so it has a spread of 25. the rest of the box plot values are closer together, so 5 is an outlier