Mathematics
Mathematics, 03.12.2019 04:31, fay1016

The inverse of x in the linear congruence xy (mod z) is x^{-1}. if i multiplied both sides of the equation with x^{-1}, so i could get something in the form of x ≡ 1 (mod z), isn't that multiplying by 1/x, therefore dividing by x? isn't division not allowed in linear congruences?

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The inverse of [tex]x[/tex] in the linear congruence [tex]x[/tex] ≡ [tex]y[/tex] (mod [tex]z[/tex])...

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