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Given angle 2 is congruent to angle 4 prove measure of angle 1 equals measure of angle 3
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If 2(a^2+b^2)=(a+b)^2 then, > a+b=0, > ab=0, > a=b, > 2a=b
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Given angle 2 is congruent to angle 4 prove measure of angle 1 equals measure of angle 3...
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