How can you tell when an equation in one variable has infinitely many solutions or no solutions

his chances of getting a coin of higher value is 4/19

step-by-step explanation:

10 - 8 = -2

  8 - 6 = -2

etc, so -2 is the common difference

step-by-step explanation:

place r′ so that qr′ is parallel to the tangent.

now we get that ∠r′py=∠pr′q, where y is on the tangent, on the opposite side of p from x.

also, because of the symmetry, ∠r′py=∠qpx.

finally, note that no matter where we place r, as long as it's on the correct arc, we have ∠prq=∠pr′q.

stringing all these equalities together, we end up with ∠prq=∠qpx.

this picture will show how its going to look like.

hope this by jack monhen