Mathematics
Mathematics, 08.08.2019 01:20, nuneybaby

Assume that f : \mathbb{n} β†’ \mathbb{n} and defined by f(n) = n - 1 for all n > 0 and f(0) = 0.
prove in this case that the function g : p(\mathbb{n}) β†’ p(\mathbb{n}) is injective.
describe the sets g[{0,1,}], g[\mathbb{n}] and g[\mathbb{n} \ {0}].
is the function g surjective? show why.

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