Can the greatest common factor between two fractions ever be equal to 1? if possible provide a proof or counter example.

amount of oatypop that contains the prize = 40%

amount   of oatypop which doesn't contain the prize = (100-40)=60%

probability that hannah will win a prize

    = s +f s +f f s+ff   f s+ff f f s+ infinity.where f= failure,s= success

=   or 60%

probability that hannah only has to buy 3 or less boxes before getting a prize= (s) and ( f s) and (ff s) and (f f f s)

        = = 87.04 %  

step-by-step explanation:

i am unable to solve this problem

step-by-step explanation:

question: match the eqaution with its graph -8x - 5y = 40

answer: 8 x 5 = 40

x= absiss

y= orderly

so you have a proportional graph

question answered by

(jacemorris04)

the correct answers are 1, 2, 4, and 5! i just got it right!