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Mathematics, 29.06.2019 12:30, SKYBLUE1015
Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. stay its inverse does not have any x-intercepts. its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
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Answers: 3
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Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply....
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