What is most likely the reason the amendment requires notifications to be in writing?

Hey there!

I'll give you an example. 

After the last Etruscan King had been driven out of Ancient Rome, the republic was created. In this republic, there were two classes: the Patricians, the rich, wealthy powerful landowners, and the Plebeians, the working class and the majority.

In this system, Plebeians were often jailed for disobeying laws because the Patricians would make new ones and interpret them for their own benefit. Thus, even though Patricians could be wrong, they weren't usually blamed. Soon, Plebeians had a major victory when the laws of the Twelve Tablets were written down, that way nobody could interpret them for their benefit.

It's no different in this government. If it's in writing, it's available to everybody, and there's no way around it in federal court, as it can't be misinterpreted considering how clear it is.

This was intentionally created to help preserve democracy, because even though democracy was created in Ancient Greece and enforced by ruler Cleisthenes, the Framers looked toward the Roman Republic more - in fact, we're still a republic today and have a lot of similar laws.

Hope this helps!

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