Which of the following was a reason for less industrialization in Latin America compared to North America?

The main reason for the lack of industrialization in Latin America compared to North America was that colonial empires (Spain, Portugal, France, the UK) did not want their colonies to become self-sufficient.

Explanation:

The lack of industrialization in Latin America (as well as the Caribbean) can be mainly traced down to the fact that colonial empires did not want their colonies to become self-sufficient. Colonies were used as a means of getting cheap, raw materials, which would then go to the mother country. There, people would turn the raw materials into finished goods, which would then be sold back to the colonies for a profit. After many Latin American nations broke free, they had very little to start off, leading to a cycle of perpetual poverty, which continues to this day. A prime example of this in action is in Haiti, which broke free from France in 1804. Haiti was mainly a sugar plantation, and because of this, they didn't have much else industry other than what was necessary to harvest cash crops. As a result, it was extremely difficult to find work, which led to instability, corruption, and a cycle which has repeated itself to this day. This mercantilist mindset is the main reason why many countries in Latin America have a poor industrial base.

president franklin roosevelt supported the tva as part of his first new deal measures approved by congress in 1933. this new agency was designed to control floods, produce electric power, and improve the lives of people living in the tennessee valley. the tva accomplished many of these goals despite problems.