During the Age of Exploration, Europeans began to colonize other parts of the world to increase their wealth and power. Colonization occurs when one nation takes complete control of the people of another nation or region. Do you think Europeans were right to colonize other people? Consider their world view at that time compared to our own. Is there some way the Europeans could have achieved their goals without colonizing other people?

8 - (2a + 7) = a + 40     distribute/multiply - into (2a + 7)

8 - 2a - 7 = a + 40

1 - 2a = a + 40       add 2a on both sides

1 = 3a + 40         subtract 40 on both sides

-39 = 3a       divide 3 on both sides

-13 = a

[proof]

8 - (2a + 7) = a + 40

8 - (2(-13) + 7) = -13 + 40

8 - (-26 + 7) = 27

8 - (-19) = 27

8 + 19 = 27

27 = 27

i would need the graph to answer the question

they were citizens but they could not vote and they did could not get involved into a political situation during that time.