The paragraph about Justinian I tells that he was the last king of Byzantia to speak Latin. After that time the empire came under strong Greek influence. Why did the Byzantine Empire become more Greek than Roman? To answer this question you may have to look at the map of the Byzantine Empire. If necessary, reread the paragraphs you have just studied.

The educated elites of part of the empire spoke Greek because before its conquest by Rome it had been ruled by Greek states. After the fall of the western part of the empire, this part lost its ties with Rome and with the Latin language.

Explanation: :)

a. the astrolabe could determine the correct latitudinal location of the ship

for the 2 countries u can do china and america because america has a democratic government while china has a communist government.

a democracy is a government run by the people either by directly voting or indirectly by electing representatives. an oligarchy is a government run by a few or a small group of people. a democracy and oligarchy are similar because both in an oligarchy and an indirect democracy, a small group of induvial determine the laws for a large group of people they are different because in an oligarchy it is easier to control and they do not have to answer to a large number of people in the country, unlike a democracy where they do have to answer to a large number of people an county that is a democracy would be the united states. a country that is an oligarchy would be the china.