The paragraph about Justinian I tells that he was the last king of Byzantia to speak Latin. After that time the empire came under strong Greek influence. Why did the Byzantine Empire become more Greek than Roman? To answer this question you may have to look at the map of the Byzantine Empire. If necessary, reread the paragraphs you have just studied.

The educated elites of part of the empire spoke Greek because before its conquest by Rome it had been ruled by Greek states. After the fall of the western part of the empire, this part lost its ties with Rome and with the Latin language.

Explanation: :)

simplify brackets

8 - 2a - 7 = a + 40

simplify 8 - 2a - 7 to -2a + 1

-2a + 1 = a + 40

add 2a to both sides

1 = a + 40 + 2a

simplify a + 40 + 2a to 3a + 40

1 = 3a + 40

subtract 40 from both sides

1 - 40 = 3a

simplify 1 - 40 o -39

-39 = 3a

divide both sides by 3

-39/3 = a

simplify 39/3 to 13

-13 = a

switch sides

a = -13

it is based on the same philosophy as health insurance