Why was the term "enlightened despot" appropriate to describe rulers such as Joseph the second and catherine the great

1. When Maria Theresa died in 1780, Joseph became the absolute ruler of the Habsburg domains and enacted many reforms that his mother had refused to consider. During his reign, Joseph put forth an average of 690 decrees a year. Maria Theresa had made fewer than 100 each year. Joseph's reforms included abolishing serfdom, ending press censorship and limiting the power of the Catholic Church. And with his Edict of Toleration, Joseph gave minority religions, such as Protestants, Greek Orthodox and Jews, the ability to live and worship more freely.

Joseph was considered an "enlightened despot," and his reforms were open-minded, to a point. However, Joseph's main aim was to make the empire more efficient and financially secure. Believing that he was doing what was right and necessary, Joseph did not bother to smooth the way with nobles or clergy who felt threatened by his changes.

2. The term 'enlightened despot' described Catherine The Great very well. She ruled with absolute authority, but also wanted to reform Russia. She proposed reforms, and recommended allowing religious toleration and abolishing torture and capital punishment. Though she was unable to achieve any of these goals. She eventually put in limited reforms, but they did little to improve the lives of peasants. In 1773, there was an uprising of serfs, and Catherine's army crushed them. Because of this, instead of trying to put an end to serfdom which she had favored before, she gave the novels absolute power over them. This took away the last traces of serfs freedom.

No because there were alot of people