PLEASE HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST, THANK YOU, AND 5-STAR RATING
How did the actions of James I change England and how did it cause their position to decline within European politics?

James I was king of Scotland (as James VI) before he became king of both England and Scotland. He acceded to the English throne upon the death of the heirless Queen Elizabeth I in 1603. James’s ensuing reign was a controversial one, in part because of many political decisions that Parliament and the public found vexing: he spent lavishly, summoned Parliament only once between 1612 and 1622, levied an unpopular tax on imports and exports without Parliament’s consent, and tried to forge an alliance with Spain, a kingdom regarded with enmity by most in England.

James I was not a popular king. Although he had ruled as king of Scotland, he was unprepared for the challenges he faced upon assuming the English throne. A slew of politically ill-advised decisions—from imposing levies to attempting to forge an alliance with Spain—put him at odds with Parliament and the public and were partially to blame for his unpopularity. Other factors included his Scottish origins (glaringly obvious from his thick accent), his cultivation of favourites (often also of Scottish origins), and his widely recognized attraction to other men (which may have led him to confer honours upon his favourites).

Explanation:

This is the best I can do:(

according to the report, the government has imposed restrictions on freedom of speech, freedom of the press, freedom of assembly, and freedom of association. the official media remained tightly controlled by government censorship and obstruction. restrictions on the freedom to assemble remain a problem in vietnam.

explanation:

i am not 100% positive but i think it is is b. both are non-partisan jobs

i am pretty sure that members of congress have term limits, can be impeached, and are nominated through direct popular vote.