WILL MARK BRAINLIEST Why did it take so long for monarchs to be subject to the rule of law just like everyone else? Why was England first to have a constitutional monarchy rather than an absolute monarchy?

Why did it take so long for monarchs to be subject to the rule of law just like everyone else?

European Absolute Monarchs of the Modern Era had accumulated lots of power, starting from the Middle Ages. They had subjugated the former medieval feudal lords, and they also had the support of the Church (the Catholic Church in the case of nations like France and Spain, and Protestant Churches in the case of England).

This alliance with the Church not only gave them more political power and wealth, but also legitimacy in front of the people. Many of these monarchs, like Louis XIV, were seen almost divine.

Why was England first to have a constitutional monarchy rather than an absolute monarchy?

England had a tradition of limiting the power of the monarch that traces back to the Carta Magna of 1215.

From that moment on, the parliament always kept some form of check on the monarch.

Besides, England, along with the Netherlands, was the first European country to liberalize the economy. This economic freedom brought wealth to many merchants, tradesmen and so on, what would be known as the  

bourgeoisie.

These people began to demand political representation in the parliament, which contributed to the power decline of the English monarchs.

- "a new era of american politics began with jackson's election in 1828, but it also completed a grand social experiment begun by the american revolution. nevertheless, jacksonian democracy represented a provocative blending of the best and worst qualities of american society."

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