Why does gandhi use the word “conversion” to describe the effect he hopes to have on british people?

Explanation: Well, Gandhi includes this point because he wants to distinguish himself from the party of violence and make it clear that he favors only nonviolence, a point that he hopes will be persuasive to his audience. ( I hope this helped <3)

i actually have a suggestion instead of an answer, how about next time instead of spending the time to time up the question you take that time and try to figure something out for yourself, do you understand?

explanation:

leave a 5 star and a and brainliest answer if you understand, hope this betters you day, or not i don't really care either way. xd

c) he felt the constitution clearly gave states this right.