PLEASE HELP ME :(

1- in bradbury's  fahrenheit 451, all books are banned and burned upon discovery. in the nazi germany, books considered to be subversive to the regime would be burned to keep the population from generating ideologies that could challenge nazism.

2- was bradbury correct in his literal interpretation of  “where they burn books, they will also ultimately burn people.”? in some way, yes. when knowledge is not only limited, but also controlled, the people tied to it are led to their demise. just like in the novel, people in nazi germany who owned  subversive books were punished not only by the burning of their property, but also by the discrimination that followed after such a public form of consequence. if a person was seen being confiscated  subversive  books, they may be considered as an ally to the jews, which meant pretty much the same as being the enemy back then. because of the extreme exclusion and suffering that followed this punishment, it's almost like dying a slow death.

in this way, the phrase  “where they burn books, they will also ultimately burn people.” is both literal and figurative.

explanation:

mark brainliest and have a great day!

the hollywood film industry of 1950 was threatened on several different fronts. television broadcasting was rapidly becoming the dominant entertainment medium in the united states. the paramount anti-trust consent decree requiring separate ownership for production companies and theater chains had gone into effect on 1 january 1950. large numbers of young men and women were marrying, having children, and moving to the suburbs, which affected the viability of downtown first-run movie theaters. foreign revenues were endangered by protectionist tactics including quota systems, high taxes, and blocked funds. finally, the morality and patriotism of hollywood films and filmmakers were under attack from government, religious, and citizens' groups.

explanation:

i believe the answer is d.

um how much