The paragraph about Justinian I tells that he was the last king of Byzantia to speak Latin. After that time the empire came under strong Greek influence. Why did the Byzantine Empire become more Greek than Roman? To answer this question you may have to look at the map of the Byzantine Empire.

They Byzantine Empire was located in modern day Greece and other surrounding countries. It would make sense this was once where the Greek empire stood.

peasants’ war, (1524–25) peasant uprising in germany inspired by changes brought by the reformation, peasants in western and southern germany invoked   divine law to demand agrarian rights and freedom from oppression by nobles and landlords. as the uprising spread, some peasant groups organized armies. although the revolt was supported huldrych zwingli and thomas müntzerits condemnation by martain luther contributed to its defeat, principally by the army of the swabian league. some 100,000 peasants were killed. reprisals and increased restrictions discouraged further attempts to improve the peasants’ plight.

i think it would be " a" i might be wrong tho

d

step-by-step explanation:

look at the x and y axis