What differences explain the relative success of germanys industrialization compared to that of france

Germany experienced a relative success in industrialization compared to France because of having the natural resources needed to fuel their economy. France didn't have the resources to pursue becoming an industrialized nation, that's why it took them a much longer time than Germany.

Explanation:

In the 19th century, Germany became known as having the most industrialized economy among nations. This success came from their potential for having natural resources. They were able to allocate different areas for their factories, industries and coal reserves. They also targeted to become a self-reliant nation, such as constructing their own railroads. Many of the cities in the country were connected through this, thus it became easier to travel, trade and do other business-related things.

On the contrary, France had a slower time achieving an industrialized economy owing to a lesser number of natural resources. Unlike Germany, its coal reserve wasn't abundant. It also imported some of its materials from other countries. This event was also hampered because of the French Revolution. Many people were against the wealthy businessmen, that they attack them from time to time. This scared the businessmen, which caused some of them to live in other countries. Businesses slowed down. However, trading became easier because people could trade-off their items from one place to another without paying any tax. This contributed to their industrialization.

explanation:

i would have to say the women in the 1700 had the most rights because the men did not car about what they did in there time

it would be that mali has the worst literacy rate than the others