English, 09.07.2019 10:10, keishonnawimbush
Why do "opposites" have more in common than "non-opposites"? a. they share a continuum. b. non-opposites are the same thing. c. aristotle's doctrine of the mean states it. d. the above statement is not valid: opposites have nothing in common with each other.
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Why do "opposites" have more in common than "non-opposites"? a. they share a continuum. b. non-oppo...
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