English, 19.02.2020 01:53, sciencefanfae7248

In Macbeth, Shakespeare typically uses iambic pentameter when any of the
nobles speak, whereas commoners don't speak in verse at all. Why do you think
Shakespeare makes this distinction?
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In Macbeth, Shakespeare typically uses iambic pentameter when any of the
nobles speak, whereas commoners don't speak in verse at all. Why do you think
Shakespeare makes this distinction?
Type answer here...
3 of 3
SUBMIT
PREVIOUS
17 of 18
NEXT->