Why does macbeth kill the king’s servants?

This is because he wanted it to look like they killed Duncan (The King), if they were alive and people found out it wasn't them, the suspicions would start to go around and inquiries were happening. Macbeth didn't want to make it obvious so he said he killed them out of "rage" over their actions.

Macbeth felt he had to kill the king's servants as they may have possibly figured out that it was him who killed the king. He then tells others he had to kill them as they had killed the king.

did you figure it out? i need on this same question

in the line from the end of the story "the cask of the amontillado," by edgar allan poe, the narrator has put the last stone on the wall, thus sentencing fortunato to death. just like that montresor associates his feeling of sickness to the humidity of the catacombs, and seems to be glad he has taken revenge on fortunato. however, montresor's last words are "in pace requiescat," which mean "may he rest in peace." as a result, it can be inferred that he hides or does not want to assume his guilt or remorse for killing fortunato in such a horrible way.