Consider a person who has Marfan syndrome, which is a genetic disorder. This person has only one allele for this disorder in their genotype. What does this mean about the allele for Marfan syndrome? Summarize evidence to support your claim, and explain your reasoning.

marfans syndrome is dominate

Explanation:

There is only one allele and so there would be like a 25% chance that the person would get it and so it kind of has to be dominate (I think o could of worded that Better but o cant think of the words to make it clearer)

700

they are often in theme and variations