Mill stated above statement because he thought that it is better to be dissatisfied than a fool satisfied as dissatisfaction allow individuals to experience and/or understand lower and higher pleasures (pleasure forms) so that they can understand and enjoy their position (either its lower pleasure or higher pleasure) that's why Mills satisfied with Socrates unsatisfied version that can allow individuals to seek for their own pleasure and become knowledgeable to achieve a pleasure form unlike a pig or fool.

What is this supossed to be?

You need to figure out at which x-value does the graph has a tangent line slope of -1.remember, the derivative is the slope of the tangent line. so find the derivative function and set it to equal -1 to find the x-value that will have a tangent line slope of 0.differentiate with the chain rule.    set the derivative to equal -1 and solve for x.      take log base 10 of both sides. also recall that  .    so the x-coord of the point of tangency is .the y-coordinate of this point of tangency can be calculated using the original function:     using point-slope form, the equation of the tangent line is      the x-intercept of this tangent line is when the graph is at y=0.    this rounds off to  .choice c.

My bad i can u but i can’t type it all here

No pos ta cabron compa